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NO.1 Company A has decided to implement a new data system to support their rapidly growing
business. They have an existing 20 TB worth of raw data, with an expected weekly incoming rate of
50 GB of new raw data. The data is mostly text based and unstructured. A typical query can involve
pulling in 10 GB of data. Historically, performance has been an issue and currently needs to be
addressed. Which of the following would you suggest to support these requirements?
A. Set up a Hadoop system with commodity HW for scalability
B. Use a mixture of different disk-types to provide hot/cold storage
C. Utilize de-duplication and compression technology
D. Create range partitions for the data
Answer: A

C2090-102 Practice Exam   

NO.2 Which of the following statements is true about DB2 BLU?
A. To support mixed workload it is necessary to create a shadow copy of the relevant tables.
B. To move a table from row based into a BLU columnar format you have to take a back up and
restore it to a BLU table.
C. To support mixed workload it is necessary to create a shadow copy of the database populated with
relevant BLU tables.
D. To move a table from row based into a BLU columnar format you need to take it offline and do a
one time convert into a BLU table.
Answer: D

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Reference:
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Exam Code: C8010-725

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Commerce V7 (FEP 7), Application Development

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Exam Code: C2090-102

Exam Name: IBM Big Data Architect

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Exam Code: C9510-401

Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile, System Administration

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1.Defining the process strategy
2.Assisting with process design

NO.2 Improving the process

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Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (901)

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Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals

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CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification Exam Objectives (FC0-U51)
INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification exam is designed to show that the successful candidate has the knowledge to identify and explain basic computer components, set up a basic workstation, conduct basic software installation, establish basic network connectivity, identify compatibility issues and identify/prevent basic security risks. Further this exam will assess the candidate’s knowledge in the areas of safety and preventative maintenance of computers. This exam is intended for candidates who are users that are considering a career in IT and later considering the pursuit of a CompTIA A+ or similar certification.
Domain % of Examination
1.0 Software 21%
2.0 Hardware 18%
3.0 Security 21%
4.0 Networking 16%
5.0 Basic IT literacy 24%
Total 100%
(A list of acronyms used in these objectives appears at the end of this document.)
**Note: The bulleted lists below each objective are not exhaustive lists. Even though they are not included in this document, other examples of technologies, processes or tasks pertaining to each objective may also be included on the exam.

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Exam Code: 200-355

Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals

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NO.1 Which two actions are best for deploying VoWLAN on a wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. Minimize the use of Class 3 Bluetooth devices.
B. Maximize client access by enabling only a few high data rates used by clients.
C. Minimize the use of analog cameras.
D. Minimize the use of IP cameras.
E. Maximize client access by enabling all data rates used by clients.
Answer: B,C

200-355 Real Dumps   

NO.2 Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose
two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. duplicate SSID
C. dBm
D. the type of security crack being used
E. duty cycle
F. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
Answer: C,E

200-355 test answers   200-355 Exam Prep   

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Designing Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

Exam Number:600-455 UCCED
Associated Certifications:Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist
Duration:75 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages:English

Description
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of design considerations and guidelines for deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (Cisco Unified CCE) solutions. Cisco Unified CCE is part of Cisco Unified Communications application suite, which delivers intelligent call routing, network-to-desktop computer telephony integration (CTI), and multichannel contact management to contact center agents over an IP network.

Exam Topics
The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the practical exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the following guidelines may change at any time without notice.

23%     1.0   Describe the Features and Functionality of the Cisco Unified CCE Solution

11%     2.0   Identify the Design Considerations for Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a Cisco Unified CCE Solution

19%     3.0   Identify the Network Design Considerations in a Cisco Unified CCE Solution

23%     4.0   Identify the Design Considerations for Cisco Unified ICM, Cisco Finesse, Cisco Unified CVP, and Cisco Unified Intelligence Center in a Cisco Unified CCE Solution

13%     5.0   Describe the Sizing Process for Contact Center Resources and Cisco  Unified CCE Components

11%     6.0   Describe the Virtualization Environment for Contact Center Resources and Cisco Unified CCE Components

Recommended Training
The following courses are the recommended training for this exam.

Administering Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Part 1 (AUCCE1) 2.0
Administering Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Part 2 (AUCCE2) 2.0
Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (DUCCE) 2.0
Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Additional Resources
A variety of Cisco Press titles may be available for this exam. These titles can be purchased through the Cisco Marketplace Bookstore, directly from Cisco Press.

 

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Exam Code: 300-080

Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video v1.0

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Exam Code: 600-455

Exam Name: Designing Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCED) for Validating Knowledge

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NO.1 Which option describes what happens to the local copies of Call Detail Records files on the
Cisco Unified CM
subscribers after they are transferred to the publisher?
A. They will be compressed and backed up.
B. They will remain on the subscriber server until overwritten by new CDR files.
C. They will be deleted only after the subscriber received notification that the publisher has also
deleted the
correspondent files.
D. They will be compressed and then stored on the subscriber servers.
E. They will be deleted.
Answer: E

400-051 Study Guide   

NO.2 pass-thru {content {sdp | unsupp} | headers {unsupp | list tag}}

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Exam Code: 400-051

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Exam Code: 300-135

Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)

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NO.1 You need to create a basic organizational structure for testing purposes. Which interfaces
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A. PPME (Change Matrix Organization)
B. PPOM_OLD (Simple Maintenance)
C. PPSC (Create General Structure)
D. PP01 (General - Maintain Object)
E. PO10 (Maintain Organizational Unit)
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 After installing the latest support packages to a test system you are facing a runtime error
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What should you do first?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
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B. Report the problem to SAP.
C. Ask an ABAP developer to correct the error.
D. Ask SAP Basis team to re-install the support packages.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Delta Exam

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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
Review the Exhibit. An administrator has configured permissions for a group called VMGroup and a
user named VMUser. A new Role has been created called PowerVM. The group and role have these
charecteristics:
-PowerVM role can power on VMs -VMGroup granted PowerVM role on VMFolder -VMUser is a
member of VMGroup -VMUser granted No Access on VMFolder
Based on the exhibit, which statement best explains why VMUser is denied access to the VMFolder?
A. The PowerVM role overrides the No Access role.
B. The No Access role overrides the PowerVM role.
C. The VMGroup permission overrides the VMUser permission.
D. The VMUser permission overrides the VMGroup permission.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Reference: https://communities.vmware.com/message/2329464

NO.2 Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
B. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
C. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
When coordinating the VMware NMP and any installed third-party MPPs, the PSA performs the
following tasks:
Reference:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%2FGUID
-C1C4A725-8BE4-4875919E-693812961366.html

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NO.1 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login shell)
OR
# system-config-users

NO.2 Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS.
Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname abc.com
IP Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim /etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)

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Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c

Exam Number: 1Z0-060 / 1Z0-060

Duration: 120 minutes

Associated Certifications:
Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Professional
,
ORACLE MASTER Gold Oracle Database 12c (Available only in Japan)

Number of Questions:
Section 1 = 51

Section 2 = 34

Exam Product Version: Oracle Database 12c,

Passing Score: Section 1 = 64%; Section 2 = 65% Both sections must be passed to pass exam.

Exam Price: US$ 150

Validated Against:

This exam has been validated against Oracle Database 12.1.0.1.0.

format: Multiple Choice

 

Recommended Training

• 
  Oracle Database 12c: New Features for Administrators

• 
  Certification Exam Prep Seminar: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c


• 
  Practice Exams: Oracle authorized practice exam from Kaplan SelfTest: 1Z0-060 Upgrade to 12c - New Features of Oracle Database 12c

 

TOPICS

New Features of Oracle Database 12c

 

Enterprise Manager and Other Tools

• 
  Use EM Express


• 
  Use OUI, DBCA for installation and configuration

Basics of Multitenant Container Database (CDB)

• 
  Identify the benefits of the multitenant container database


• 
  Explain root and multitenant architecture

Configuring and Creating CDBs and PDBs

• 
  Create and configure a CDB


• 
  Create and configure a PDB


• 
  Migrate a non-CDB to a PDB database

Managing CDBs and PDBs

• 
  Establish connection to a CDB/PDB


• 
  Start up and shut down a CDB/PDB


• 
  Change instance parameters for a CDB/PDB

Managing Tablespaces, Common and Local Users, Privileges and Roles

• 
  Manage tablespaces in a CDB/PDB


• 
  Manage users and privileges for CDB/PDB

Backup, Recovery and Flashback for a CDB/PDB

• 
  Perform backup of CDB and PDB


• 
  Perform recovery of CDB and PDB


• 
  Perform Flashback for a CDB

Information Lifecycle Management and Storage Enhancements

• 
  Use ILM features


• 
  Perform tracking and automated data placement


• 
  Move a data file online

In-Database Archiving and Valid-Time Temporal

• 
  Differentiate between ILM and Valid-Time Temporal


• 
  Set and use Valid Time Temporal


• 
  Use In-Database archiving

Auditing

• 
  Enable and configure Unified Audit Data Trail


• 
  Create and enable audit policies

Privileges

• 
  Use administrative privileges


• 
  Create, enable and use privilege analysis

Oracle Data Redaction

• 
  Use and manage Oracle Data Redaction policies

RMAN and Flashback Data Archive

• 
  Use RMAN enhancements


• 
  Implement the new features in Flashback Data Archive

Real-Time Database Operation Monitoring

• 
  Implement real-time database operation monitoring

SQL Tuning

• 
  Use Adaptive Execution Plans


• 
  Use enhanced features of statistics gathering


• 
  Use Adaptive SQL Plan Management

Emergency Monitoring, Real-Time ADDM, Compare Period ADDM, and Active Session History (ASH) Analytics

• 
  Perform emergency monitoring and real-time ADDM


• 
  Generate ADDM Compare Period


• 
  Diagnose performance issues using ASH enhancements

Resource Manager and Other Performance Enhancements

• 
  Use Resource Manager for a CDB and PDB


• 
  Explain Multi-process Multi-threaded Oracle architecture


• 
  Use Flash Cache

Index and Table Enhancements

• 
  Use Index enhancements


• 
  Use Table enhancements


• 
  Use Online operation enhancements

ADR and Network Enhancements

• 
  Explain ADR enhancements

Oracle Data Pump, SQL*Loader, External Tables and Online Operations Enhancements

• 
  Use Oracle Data Pump enhancements


• 
  Use SQL*Loader and External table enhancements

Partitioning Enhancements

• 
  Explain Partitioning enhancements


• 
  Explain Index enhancements for partitioned tables

SQL Enhancements

• 
  Use Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode


• 
  Use Row limiting clause, and secure file LOBs enhancements


• 
  Configure extended datatypes

Key DBA Skills

 

Core Administration

• 
  Explain the fundamentals of DB architecture


• 
  Install and configure a database


• 
  Configure server and client network for a database


• 
  Monitor database alerts


• 
  Perform daily administration tasks


• 
  Apply and review patches


• 
  Back up and recover the database


• 
  Troubleshoot network and database issues


• 
  Detect and repair data failures with Data Recovery Advisor


• 
  Implement Flashback Technology


• 
  Load and Unload Data


• 
  
  
  Miscellaneous
  
  
  
  
  • 
    
    
    Relocate SYSAUX occupants
    
    
  
  
  • 
    
    
    Create a default permanent tablespace
    
    
  
  
  • 
    
    
    Use the Redo Logfile Size Advisor
    
    
  
  
  • 
    
    
    Use Secure File LOBs
    
    
  
  
  • 
    
    
    Use Direct NFS
    
    
  
  
  
  

Performance Management

• 
  Design the database layout for optimal performance


• 
  Monitor performace


• 
  Manage memory


• 
  Analyze and identify performance issues


• 
  Perform real application testing


• 
  Use Resource Manager to manage resources


• 
  Implement Application Tuning

Storage

• 
  Manage database structures


• 
  Administer ASM


• 
  Manage ASM disks and diskgroups


• 
  Manage ASM instance


• 
  Manage VLDB


• 
  Implement Space Management

Security

• 
  Develop and implement a security policy


• 
  Configure and manage auditing


• 
  Create the password file


• 
  Implement column and tablespace encryption

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NO.1 Restore the database.

NO.2 Mount the database.

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NO.1 You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for Group1.
To which System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) group should you assign Group1?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User
D. Delegated Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server
2012. Server3 is
connected to a disk storage array.
You need to ensure that Server1 can store files on the storage array. The solution must ensure that
Server1 can access
the storage as a local disk.
What should you configure on each server?
To answer, drag the appropriate configuration to the correct location in the answer area. Each
configuration may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to
view content.
Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: iSCSI Initiator Service
Services that depend on iSCSI devices
Devices that are connected to a computer through Microsoft iSCSI Initiator are presented to the
Windows operating
system later in the boot process than direct-attached storage. There are applications and services
that make
assumptions about the timing of the availability of the devices. The Microsoft iSCSI Initiator service
and the Service
Control Manager in the Windows operating system help these applications and services synchronize
with information
about the devices and volumes that are hosted on iSCSI targets.
Box 2: iSCSI Target Server role service
With iSCSI Target Server, any computer running Windows Server 2012 can become a storage device.
Step 1: Install iSCSI Target Server and failover clustering
Step 2: Configure the iSCSI initiator
Step 3: Create the high availability iSCSI Target Server role service
Step 4: Configure iSCSI storage provider identity credentials
Reference:
iSCSI Target Block Storage, How To

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NO.1 In delimiting system and system context, a differentiation is made between the system boundary and
the context boundary. This differentiation is important in order to understand which aspects impact on the
requirements of the system to be deployed and which do not. (Choose two)
A. The selection of the system boundary establishes which aspects are converted by the system to be
deployed which be deployed as scope.
B. Only the aspects within the system boundary must be taken into account in order to determine the
requirements of the system to be deployed
C. The context boundary separates the system from the system context
D. The system context includes all aspects that are not relevant to the requirements of the planned
system
E. The system boundary and the context boundary define the system context
Answer: C,E

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A. Stakeholders are special interest representatives who are responsible for the approval of the first
project phase
B. The external actors interacting with a system and technical interfaces to surrounding systems are
designated as stakeholders
C. Stakeholders are persons and organizations affected by the development and the of the system or of
the product
D. A stakeholder is responsible for the administration of the software development environment
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the best way to add personalization keywords to the client context cloud? (Choose the
best answer.)
A. Use the generic store properties component
B. Use a segmentation rule
C. Use a teaser component
D. Use a workflow step
Answer: A

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NO.2 An organization has product descriptions appropriate for all countries. How would you allow a
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(Choose the best answer.)
A. Modify the rollout configuration
B. Be sure the content is copied everywhere
C. Do NOT use the multi-site manager
D. Offer the content as optional on the source site
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C-AUDSEC-731

Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP Authorization and Auditing for SAP NetWeaver 7.31

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Exam Code: C_HANATEC_10

Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2015)

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Exam Code: C_THR82_1411

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Consultant - SuccessFactors Performance and Goals

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C_HANATEC151 : SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2015)

 Operation of SAP HANA > 12%
 Monitoring of SAP HANA > 12%
 Security and Authorization 8% - 12%
 Backup & recovery 8% - 12%
 High Availability & and Disaster Tolerance 8% - 12%
 System architecture 8% - 12%
 Troubleshooting of SAP HANA 8% - 12%
 DB migration to SAP HANA 8% - 12%
 SAP HANA Installation + upgrade 8% - 12%

The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2015)" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA for the profile of an SAP HANA technology consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.

To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

 

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NO.1 HANA Currency Conversion supported only via ___
A. Attribute
B. Analytic
C. Analytic / Calculation
D. Calculation
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data?
A. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
B. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.
C. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
D. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP151

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2015)

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Exam Code: C_TBIT44_731

Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31

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Exam Code: C-THR82-1411

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Consultant - SuccessFactors Performance and Goals

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Exam Code: C-HANATEC151

Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2015)

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Exam Code: C_TSCM42_66

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6

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NO.1 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
B. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
C. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Bill of material
B. Task list
C. Work center
D. Material master
E. Production version
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Which of the following frequencies is NOT an option for Subscription Notifications?
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C. Text field with an Email text mask
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Answer: D

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